HPSC HCS Question Paper 2026 with Detailed Explanations

The HPSC HCS (Preliminary) Exam 2026 has been one of the most talked-about papers among Haryana Civil Services aspirants — and for good reason. The questions this year were analytical, multi-statement-based, and heavily focused on both national GS and Haryana-specific knowledge.

If you appeared for the exam and want to check your answers, or if you’re using this paper as a practice resource for future attempts, you’re in the right place.

We have solved the complete HPSC HCS 2026 General Studies question paper — all 100 questions.

Q1. Consider the following pairs:1. Sri Bhramaramda Mallikarjuna Swamy Temple : Andhra Pradesh2. Shri Kamakshi Devi Temple : Goa3. Sun Temple : OdishaHow many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(D) None of the pairs

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two pairs

Explanation:

Pair 1: Sri Bhramaramda Mallikarjuna Swamy Temple is located at Srisailam, Andhra Pradesh. ✔ CORRECT

Pair 2: Shri Kamakshi Devi Temple is located in Kanchipuram, Tamil Nadu – NOT Goa. ✘ WRONG

Pair 3: The Sun Temple (Konark) is located in Odisha. ✔ CORRECT

Thus, only two pairs (1 and 3) are correctly matched.

Q2. Consider the following information about Art Forms:1. Mohiniyattam – Chera patronage (9th–12th century CE) – Graceful swaying movements, linked to Mohini incarnation of Vishnu2. Thullal – Introduced by Kunchan Nambiar – Solo satirical dance performed during temple festivals3. Kutiyattam – Chakkiar Community – Dramatic performance lasting from six to twenty daysIn how many rows is information correctly matched?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (C) 0nly 2

Explanation:

✘ “Chera patronage (9th–12th century CE)” → Incorrect

Mohiniyattam is a classical dance of Kerala, but its major development and revival happened much later (18th–19th century, especially under Swathi Thirunal).
Not specifically linked to Chera period patronage in this way.

✔Key feature (graceful, Mohini–Vishnu theme) → correct

Q3. Consider the following information about Festivals:1. Madai – Chhattisgarh – December2. Doongri – Himachal Pradesh – May3. Gugga Naumi – Haryana – August-SeptemberIn how many rows is information correctly matched?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two

Explanation:

Madai festival of Chhattisgarh is generally held in the months of December–January. ✔

Doongri festival in Himachal Pradesh is typically celebrated in March (Shivaratri period), not May. ✘

Gugga Naumi is celebrated in Haryana during Bhadrapada (August–September). ✔

Thus, pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Q4. Consider the following pairs about IMF Facilities:1. Extended Fund Facility (EFF) : For structural balance of payments problems2. Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) : Quick and concessional lending for high-income countries3. Resilience and Sustainability Facility (RSF) : Short-term liquidity lineHow many pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (A) Only one

Explanation:

EFF: Provides medium-term assistance for structural BoP problems. ✔ CORRECT

RCF: Provides quick concessional financing to LOW-INCOME countries (not high-income). ✘ WRONG

RSF: Provides long-term financing (up to 20 years) for climate/pandemic resilience – NOT a short-term liquidity line. ✘ WRONG

Only pair 1 is correctly matched.

Q5. Consider the following information:1. Human Development Index – Mahbub Ul Haq2. Physical Quality of Life Index – Morris David Morris3. Multi Dimensional Poverty Index – Suresh TendulkarIn how many rows is information correctly matched?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two

Explanation:

HDI was developed by Mahbub Ul Haq (with Amartya Sen) in 1990 for UNDP. ✔

Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) was created by Morris David Morris. ✔

Multi Dimensional Poverty Index (MPI) was developed by Sabina Alkire and James Foster (Oxford Poverty & Human Development Initiative). Suresh Tendulkar is associated with the Tendulkar Committee on poverty line estimation – NOT MPI. ✘

Only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Q6. Consider the following information about Landforms:1. Lapies – Depositional – Groundwater2. Seif – Depositional – Wind3. Horn – Erosional – GlacierIn how many rows is information correctly matched?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two

Explanation:

Lapies (Karren): These are EROSIONAL landforms formed by dissolution of limestone by surface/rain water – NOT depositional, NOT groundwater. ✘

Seif dunes: DEPOSITIONAL landforms created by wind action. ✔

Horn (Pyramidal Peak): EROSIONAL landform carved by glaciers from multiple sides. ✔

Only pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

Q7. Consider the following statements about drainage patterns:1. When rivers originate from a hill and flow in all directions, the drainage pattern is known as ‘trellis’ pattern.2. The drainage pattern resembling branches of a tree is known as the ‘centripetal’ drainage pattern.3. When rivers discharge their waters from all directions in a lake or depression, the pattern is known as ‘dendritic pattern’.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (D) None

Explanation:

Statement 1: Rivers originating from a hill flowing in all directions = RADIAL pattern (not trellis). ✘

Statement 2: Branches of a tree = DENDRITIC pattern (not centripetal). ✘

Statement 3: Rivers converging into a central lake/depression = CENTRIPETAL pattern (not dendritic). ✘

All three statements are incorrectly matched. None is correct.

Q8. Consider the following statements about Biosphere Reserves:1. Nilgiri Biosphere reserve has the largest known population of the two endangered species – Nilgiri Tahr and Lion-tailed macaque.2. Sea cow (Dugong) is found in the Gulf of Mannar biosphere reserve.3. About 80% of the flowering plants reported from the Western Ghats occur in the Nilgiri Biosphere reserve.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve hosts the world’s largest known populations of Nilgiri Tahr (wild goat) and Lion-tailed Macaque. ✔

Statement 2: Dugong (sea cow) is found in Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park/Biosphere Reserve. ✔

Statement 3: Nilgiri BR covers about 50% (not 80%) of Western Ghats flowering plants. 80% is an overestimate. ✘

Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Q9. Consider the following statements:1. Mizoram, also known as the ‘Molassis basin’, is made of soft unconsolidated deposits.2. ‘Bugyals’ are summer grasslands in the higher reaches of the Great Himalayan ranges.3. Loktak lake is located in Mizoram.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: Mizoram is geologically known as the Molasses Basin – composed of soft, loosely consolidated sedimentary deposits. ✔

Statement 2: Bugyals are alpine meadows/grasslands in Uttarakhand Himalayas used as summer pastures. ✔

Statement 3: Loktak lake (the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India, known for floating ‘phumdis’) is located in MANIPUR, not Mizoram. ✘

Q10. Assertion A: The south-western districts of Haryana receive significantly less monsoon rainfall compared to the north-eastern districts.Reason R: The Aravalli range in the south-west acts as a massive orographic barrier, blocking the moisture-laden winds of the Bay of Bengal branch.

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation

(D) A is false but R is true

✔ ANSWER: (C) A is true but R is false

Explanation:

Assertion A is TRUE: SW Haryana (Mahendragarh, Rewari, Sirsa) receives significantly less rainfall than NE Haryana.

Reason R is FALSE: The Aravalli Range runs NE-SW, which is roughly parallel (not perpendicular) to the Bay of Bengal branch of the monsoon. It does NOT act as an effective orographic barrier to block monsoon winds.

The lesser rainfall in SW Haryana is due to: (i) increasing distance from Bay of Bengal moisture source, (ii) the Aravalli’s orientation fails to intercept monsoon, (iii) influence of the Thar Desert creating semi-arid conditions.

A is true, but R provides an incorrect explanation.

Q11. With reference to Haryana Panchayati Raj Act, 1994, how many of the following criteria are mandatory for a candidate contesting for the post of Sarpanch?1. Must possess a functional toilet in their residential premises.2. A male candidate from General Category must have passed Matriculation (10th) examination.3. Must not have any arrears owed to any Primary Agricultural Cooperative Society (PACS).4. Must be a minimum of 25 years of age.

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) All four

✔ ANSWER: (C) Only three

Explanation:

Criterion 1: Functional toilet – MANDATORY under Haryana amendment (part of Swachh Bharat reforms). ✔

Criterion 2: Matriculation for male General Category candidates – MANDATORY. ✔

Criterion 3: No arrears to PACS – MANDATORY. ✔

Criterion 4: Minimum age of 25 years – WRONG. The minimum age for contesting Panchayat elections is 21 years in Haryana. ✘

Three criteria (1, 2, 3) are correct.

Q12. Consider the following statements regarding the imposition of President’s Rule (Article 356) in Haryana:1. President’s Rule has been imposed in Haryana exactly three times since its formation.2. The first instance of President’s Rule in Haryana occurred in 1967 following the fall of the Rao Birender Singh-led Samyukta Vidhayak Dal government.

(A) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true

(B) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false

(D) Statement 1 is false, but Statement 2 is true

✔ ANSWER: (A) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true

Explanation:

Haryana was formed in November 1966. President’s Rule has been imposed three times: 1967, 1977, and 1991.

Statement 1: Three times total – CORRECT. ✔

Statement 2: The first President’s Rule in Haryana came in 1967 after the Rao Birender Singh-led Samyukta Vidhayak Dal (SVD) coalition government collapsed. ✔

Both statements are true.

Q13. Assertion A: The J.C. Shah Commission, established in 1966, unanimously recommended the inclusion of Chandigarh and Kharar tehsil into the newly formed state of Haryana.Reason R: The 1961 linguistic census indicated a decisive Hindi-speaking majority in both Chandigarh and the Kharar tehsil.

(A) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation

(B) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation

(D) A is false but R is true

✔ ANSWER: (D) A is false but R is true

Explanation:

Assertion A is FALSE: The J.C. Shah Commission did NOT unanimously recommend Chandigarh’s inclusion in Haryana. The commission recommended Chandigarh to PUNJAB as its capital, with Haryana to receive certain compensatory territories (Abohar and Fazilka tehsils).

Reason R is TRUE: The 1961 census did show a majority of Hindi-speaking population in Chandigarh and Kharar tehsil, which was cited in discussions about their linguistic affiliation.

A is false, but R is true.

Q14. Consider the following pairs about Medieval Postal System:1. Pathmar : Horse Postal System2. Uluq : Foot Postal System3. Dawa : MessengersHow many pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(D) None of the pairs

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two pairs

Explanation:

The Delhi Sultanate had a well-organized postal system with two types:

Uluq (Ulaq): The HORSE postal system where horses were stationed at intervals. ✔ (Pair 2 is wrong – Uluq is horse, not foot)

Dawa: The FOOT postal system with trained runners/messengers stationed every few kilometres. ✔

Pathmar: This refers to the horse postal system (similar to Uluq). ✔

Pair 2 is incorrect (Uluq is horse postal, not foot). Pairs 1 and 3 are correct.

Q15. Consider the following pairs about Medieval travelers:1. Bernier : Describes the efficiency of the postal system.2. Ibn Battuta : Always compares India with the superiority of Europe.3. Abul Fazl : Considers land revenue as a ‘remuneration of kingship’, or a demand made in exchange for providing security.How many pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(D) None of the pairs

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two pairs

Explanation:

Bernier (French physician, Mughal court): Praised the efficiency of the Mughal postal (dak-chowki) system. ✔

Ibn Battuta: A Moroccan traveler, NOT European. He compared India with other Islamic regions, not Europe. He did not consistently compare India with Europe’s superiority. ✘

Abul Fazl (Akbar’s minister, Ain-i-Akbari): Explicitly called land revenue a ‘remuneration of kingship’ – payment for the king’s protection to the peasants. ✔

Pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Q16. Consider the following pairs about Sufi compilations:1. Siyar-ul-Auliya : Tazkiras (recollection of biographies of Sufi saints)2. Maktubat-e-Imam Rabbani : Maktubat (collection of written letters)3. Fawaid-al-Fu’ad : Mulfuzat (conversations of Sufi saints)How many pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(D) None of the pairs

✔ ANSWER: (C) All the three pairs

Explanation:

Siyar-ul-Auliya by Mir Khurd: A tazkira (biographical compilation) of Chishti saints. ✔

Maktubat-e-Imam Rabbani by Sheikh Ahmad Sirhindi: A collection of letters (maktubat) addressed to nobles and disciples. ✔

Fawaid-al-Fu’ad by Amir Hasan Sijzi: Records the conversations (mulfuzat) of Nizamuddin Auliya – considered the finest example of malfuzat literature. ✔

All three pairs are correctly matched.

Q17. Consider the following pairs about medieval travelers to India:1. Duarte Barbosa : Portuguese2. Nicolo de’ Conti : Russian3. Afanasy Nikitin : ItalianHow many pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(D) None of the pairs

✔ ANSWER: (A) Only one pair

Explanation:

Duarte Barbosa: Portuguese traveler who visited India in early 16th century and wrote about South India. ✔

Nicolo de’ Conti: Was ITALIAN (Venetian) – traveled to India in the 15th century, not Russian. ✘

Afanasy Nikitin: Was RUSSIAN – traveled to India in 1469–72 and wrote ‘A Journey Beyond Three Seas’. ✘ (Pair 3 says Italian – wrong)

Only pair 1 (Duarte Barbosa = Portuguese) is correct.

Q18. Consider the following pairs about Vijayanagara facts:1. Hiriya : Canal2. Kamalapuram : Platform3. Amara Nayak : Military CommanderHow many pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(D) None of the pairs

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two pairs

Explanation:

Hiriya Canal: Built by Deva Raya I – an important irrigation canal in Vijayanagara. ✔

Kamalapuram: A town near Hampi. While it has a reservoir/tank, calling it specifically a ‘platform’ is debated. The king’s balance (Tula Bhara) platform is in Hampi, not Kamalapuram. ✘

Amara Nayak System: Nayakas were military commanders who also served as regional governors. Amara Nayakas were given land (amaram) in exchange for military service. ✔

Pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Q19. Consider the following pairs about Tamil/Bhakti literature:1. Nalayiradivya-prabandham : Compilation of Shaiva hymns in Tamil language2. Andal : Vishnu’s beloved3. Tavaram : The poems of Appar, Sambandar and SundararHow many pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(D) None of the pairs

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two pairs

Explanation:

Nalayiradivya-prabandham: This is a compilation of VAISHNAVA (not Shaiva) hymns composed by 12 Alvars. ✘

Andal (Kodai): A female Alvar saint who considered herself the bride of Vishnu. Her two works are Tiruppavai and Nacciyar Tirumoli. ✔

Tevaram (Thevaram): A compilation of devotional hymns composed by three Nayanmars – Appar, Thirugnana Sambandar, and Sundarar. ✔

Pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

Q20. Consider the following pairs about motion graphs:1. Horizontal velocity-time graph : Zero acceleration2. A linear velocity-time graph with non-zero slope : Uniform motion3. Curved distance-time graph : Non-uniform motionHow many pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(D) None of the pairs

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two pairs

Explanation:

Pair 1: A horizontal (flat) v-t graph means constant velocity → zero acceleration. ✔

Pair 2: A linear v-t graph with NON-ZERO slope means velocity is changing uniformly → UNIFORMLY ACCELERATED motion (not uniform motion). Uniform motion = constant velocity = zero slope. ✘

Pair 3: A curved distance-time graph means speed is changing (acceleration present) → non-uniform motion. ✔

Pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Q21. Statement I: If a copper and a nichrome wire of same length and same area of cross-section carry the same current for same time at room temperature, both will produce the same amount of heat.Statement II: If current in a conductor is doubled and time is halved, the heat produced becomes double.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✔ ANSWER: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation:

Heat produced: Q = I²Rt

Statement I: Copper and nichrome have DIFFERENT resistivities (nichrome ≈ 60× more resistive than copper). With same I, t, but different R: Q_nichrome >> Q_copper. They do NOT produce same heat. ✘

Statement II: If I → 2I and t → t/2: Q’ = (2I)² × R × (t/2) = 4I²R × t/2 = 2I²Rt = 2Q. Heat doubles. ✔

Statement I is false, Statement II is true.

Q22. Statement I: For mixing concentrated nitric acid and water, water must always be added slowly to concentrated acid.Statement II: For dilution, solvent is required to be added to the concentrated solution.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✔ ANSWER: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Explanation:

Correct safety rule: ALWAYS add ACID to WATER, never water to acid (to avoid violent exothermic reaction and spattering).

Statement I: States ‘water must be added to concentrated acid’ – this is DANGEROUS and WRONG. ✘

Statement II: States ‘solvent (water) should be added to concentrated solution’ – this describes the same wrong procedure. ✘

Both statements describe incorrect/unsafe dilution procedures. Both are false.

Q23. Consider the following information:1. Bleaching Powder – CaOCl₂ – Making drinking water free of germs2. Baking Soda – NaHCO₃ – Soda-acid fire extinguisher3. Washing Soda – Na₂CO₃ – Removing permanent hardness of waterIn how many rows is information correctly matched?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (C) All three

Explanation:

Bleaching Powder (CaOCl₂ / Ca(OCl)Cl): Used to disinfect drinking water by releasing chlorine. ✔

Baking Soda (NaHCO₃): Used in soda-acid fire extinguishers – reacts with H₂SO₄ to release CO₂ which smothers fire. ✔

Washing Soda (Na₂CO₃·10H₂O): Removes permanent hardness of water by precipitating Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ ions as carbonates. ✔

All three rows are correctly matched.

Q24. Consider the following pairs:1. Kigali Amendment : Phasing down Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)2. Paris Agreement : Adopted in 20153. Montreal Protocol : Addresses biodiversity lossHow many pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(D) None of this pairs

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two pairs

Explanation:

Kigali Amendment (2016): An amendment to the Montreal Protocol that aims to phase down HFCs (powerful greenhouse gases). ✔

Paris Agreement: Adopted at COP21 in Paris in December 2015. ✔

Montreal Protocol (1987): Addresses depletion of the ozone layer by phasing out ozone-depleting substances. Biodiversity loss is addressed by the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). ✘

Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Q25. Consider the following statements regarding ECOSOC:1. Members are elected based on regional representation.2. India has been elected under the Asia-Pacific group for the term 2026-28.3. ECOSOC is a subsidiary organ of the UN Security Council.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: ECOSOC’s 54 members are elected by the UN General Assembly based on equitable geographical representation. ✔

Statement 2: India was elected to ECOSOC for 2026-28 under the Asia-Pacific group. ✔

Statement 3: ECOSOC is a PRINCIPAL organ of the United Nations (one of 6 main organs), NOT a subsidiary of the Security Council. ✘

Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Q26. Consider the following statements about IMEC:1. The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) aims to enhance connectivity between India and Europe.2. IMEC includes both rail and maritime components.3. China is not a founding participant of IMEC.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (C) All three

Explanation:

IMEC was announced at G20 New Delhi Summit (2023) as a multi-modal connectivity corridor.

Statement 1: IMEC connects India to Europe via the Middle East – enhancing economic connectivity. ✔

Statement 2: IMEC includes both maritime (sea routes) and rail/road (overland) components. ✔

Statement 3: China is NOT a founding participant. Founding members are India, UAE, Saudi Arabia, Jordan, Israel, EU, France, Germany, Italy, and USA. ✔

All three statements are correct.

Q27. Consider the following statements about climate commitments:1. India has committed to achieving Net Zero emissions by 2070.2. The Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) are submitted under the Paris Agreement.3. NDC targets are legally binding under international law.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: India announced its target of Net Zero by 2070 at COP26 (Glasgow, 2021). ✔

Statement 2: NDCs are the climate action plans submitted by countries under the Paris Agreement. ✔

Statement 3: NDC targets are NOT legally binding. Only the process of submitting NDCs and their periodic review is binding – the content/ambition is voluntary. ✘

Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Q28. Statement I: Project Cheetah aims to reintroduce cheetahs into India after their extinction.Statement II: The project is implemented by the National Tiger Conservation Authority.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✔ ANSWER: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Explanation:

Statement I: Cheetahs became extinct in India in 1952. Project Cheetah (2022) reintroduced African cheetahs at Kuno National Park, Madhya Pradesh. ✔

Statement II: Project Cheetah is implemented under the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and overseen by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) under MoEFCC. ✔

Both statements are true.

Q29. Statement I: The Pacific Ring of Fire is associated with high seismic and volcanic activity.Statement II: It is located along the Indian Ocean coastline of India.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✔ ANSWER: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation:

Statement I: The Pacific Ring of Fire is a 40,000 km horseshoe-shaped zone around the Pacific Ocean with ~75% of Earth’s volcanoes and ~90% of earthquakes. ✔

Statement II: The Ring of Fire encircles the PACIFIC Ocean (not Indian Ocean) – it passes through coasts of the Americas, Japan, Philippines, New Zealand etc. India is NOT along it. ✘

Q30. Statement I: The highest temperature on oceanic surface is recorded at equator.Statement II: The maximum temperature of the oceans is recorded on their surface.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✔ ANSWER: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation:

Statement I: The highest ocean surface temperature is NOT at the equator. It is found around 5°–10° N latitude (due to cloud cover and rainfall at equator keeping it cooler) and in enclosed/semi-enclosed seas like the Persian Gulf and Red Sea. ✘

Statement II: Ocean temperature decreases with depth (thermocline). Maximum temperatures are indeed found at/near the ocean surface. ✔

Q31. Consider the following information:1. Kudremukh – Iron ore – Karnataka2. Balaghat – Manganese – Madhya Pradesh3. Katni – Bauxite – ChhattisgarhIn how many rows is information correctly matched?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two

Explanation:

Kudremukh (Chikkamagaluru district): Famous iron ore deposits in Karnataka. ✔

Balaghat: Known for manganese deposits in Madhya Pradesh. ✔

Katni: A district in MADHYA PRADESH (not Chhattisgarh). It is known for limestone and bauxite, but its state is wrong. ✘

Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Q32. Consider the following information about farming types:1. Nomadic Herding – Primitive subsistence activity – Sahara and Asiatic deserts2. Extensive Commercial Grain Cultivation – Wheat is principal crop – Interior parts of semi-arid lands of mid latitudes3. Mediterranean Agriculture – Known for viticulture – Mediterranean sea coast in Europe, Iran and CanadaIn how many rows is information correctly matched?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two

Explanation:

Nomadic Herding: Primitive activity of nomadic communities in Sahara and Asiatic (Central Asian) deserts. ✔

Extensive Commercial Grain Cultivation: Wheat dominant in semi-arid mid-latitude interiors (Prairies, Pampas, Steppes). ✔

Mediterranean Agriculture: Practiced in Mediterranean Europe, California, Chile, SW Australia, SW South Africa. Canada (except small BC coastal strip) does NOT have Mediterranean climate. ✘

Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Q33. Consider the following statements about Iron ore:1. In Odisha, high-grade hematite ore is found in Badampahar mines.2. Very high-grade hematites are found in the famous Bailadila range of hills in Jharkhand.3. Ballari-Chitradurga-Chikkamangaluru-Tumakuru belt in Karnataka has large reserves of iron ore.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: Badampahar mines in Keonjhar and Mayurbhanj districts of Odisha contain high-grade hematite ore. ✔

Statement 2: Bailadila is located in CHHATTISGARH (Dantewada district), not Jharkhand. ✘

Statement 3: The Bellary-Chitradurga-Chikkamagaluru-Tumkur belt in Karnataka is one of India’s major iron ore zones. ✔

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Q34. Consider the following pairs of traditional Haryanvi ornaments and the body parts they are worn on:1. Purli – Nose2. Hasla – Neck3. Kadi – Ankle4. Chhaj – ForeheadWhich pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only 1, 2, and 3

(B) Only 2, 3, and 4

(D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

✔ ANSWER: (A) Only 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

Purli (also called Nath): A nose ornament worn by women. ✔

Hasla: A thick circular neck ornament/torque traditionally worn in Haryana. ✔

Kadi/Kada: An ankle ornament (anklet) worn by women. ✔

Chhaj: ‘Chhaj’ is NOT a forehead ornament. The forehead ornament in Haryana is called ‘Tikka’ or ‘Bor’. Chhaj is related to a winnowing fan, not jewelry. ✘

Only pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched.

Q35. Which of the following statements uniquely identifies the ‘Loor’ dance of Haryana?

(A) Martial dance performed by men with swords during Dussehra

(B) Female-exclusive dance performed during Holi festival, characterized by questions and answers in a singing format

(D) A slow dance to mourn the departure of a bride from her maternal home

✔ ANSWER: (B) Female-exclusive dance performed during Holi festival, characterized by questions and answers in a singing format

Explanation:

The Loor (also spelled ‘Lur’) dance is a traditional folk dance of Haryana, specifically of the Mewat/Ahir region.

It is performed EXCLUSIVELY by women (girls and young women) during the Holi festival.

The dance involves singing in a question-and-answer (sawal-jawab) format.

It is a joyful spring festival dance associated with Holi celebrations.

Q36. Match List I (Eminent Literary Figures of Haryana) with List II (Their Renowned Work):I. Khwaja Altaf Hussain Hali – a. Musaddas-e-HaliII. Surdas – b. Sur SagarIII. Uday Bhanu Hans – c. Deshan Me Desh HaryanaIV. Rajaram Shastri – d. Jhadu Phiri

(A) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d

(B) I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c

(D) I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c

✔ ANSWER: (A) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d

Explanation:

Khwaja Altaf Hussain Hali (from Panipat, Haryana): Famous for ‘Musaddas-e-Hali’ (Madd-o-Jazr-e-Islam) – an Urdu poem. → a ✔

Surdas (associated with Haryana/Braj region): Famous for ‘Sur Sagar’ – devotional poems on Krishna. → b ✔

Uday Bhanu Hans: Haryanvi poet/author known for ‘Deshan Me Desh Haryana’ – a patriotic Haryanvi song. → c ✔

Rajaram Shastri: Known for ‘Jhadu Phiri’ – a Haryanvi literary work. → d ✔

Q37. Statement I: Pampadevi, the goddess of the Vijayanagara Empire, performed penance to marry Vishnu.Statement II: This marriage ceremony of Pampadevi is organised with great pomp every year in Virupaksha Temple.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✔ ANSWER: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation:

Statement I: Pampadevi (Bhuvanesvari Pampa) performed penance to marry VIRUPAKSHA (a form of Shiva), NOT Vishnu. Virupaksha is the presiding deity of Hampi. ✘

Statement II: The divine marriage (Kalyanotsava) of Pampa and Virupaksha is celebrated with great ceremony every year at the Virupaksha Temple in Hampi/Pattadakal. ✔

Q38. Consider the following pairs:1. Agriculture : Union List2. Livestock and Animal Husbandry : State List3. Education : Concurrent ListHow many pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(D) None of the Pairs

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two pairs

Explanation:

Agriculture: Entry 14 of the STATE List (List II) – not Union List. States legislate on agriculture. ✘

Livestock and Animal Husbandry: Entry 15 of the STATE List. ✔

Education: Originally in the State List. After the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976), Education was moved to the CONCURRENT List (Entry 25). ✔

Pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

Q39. Consider the following statements about Legislative Council:1. Parliament may create a Legislative Council if the Legislative Assembly passes a resolution by a simple majority.2. The Legislative Assembly has no role in abolition of the Legislative Council of that state.3. Total members in LC cannot exceed one-third of total LA members.4. One-twelfth of LC members are elected by graduates residing in the state for at least three years.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one statement

(B) Only two statements

(D) All four statements

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two statements

Explanation:

Statement 1: LA must pass resolution by SPECIAL majority (not simple majority – 2/3rd of members present + majority of total members). ✘

Statement 2: The Legislative Assembly DOES have a role – it passes the resolution for both creation and abolition of LC. ✘

Statement 3: Article 171 – Total LC membership cannot exceed 1/3rd of LA membership. ✔

Statement 4: Article 171(3)(b) – 1/12th of LC members are elected by graduates of 3+ years’ standing residing in the state. ✔

Only statements 3 and 4 are correct.

Q40. Consider the following statements about Panchayati Raj:1. The Gram Sabha comprises the entire population residing within a village.2. The elections to Panchayats are conducted by the Election Commission of India.3. A Panchayat dissolved before expiry of 5 years and reconstituted functions only for the remaining period.4. The Panchayats can be given the power to levy taxes by the State.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one statement

(B) Only two statements

(D) All four statements

✔ ANSWER: (C) Only three statements

Explanation:

Statement 1: Gram Sabha = all persons registered in electoral rolls of a village. (The question says ‘entire population’ which could include non-voters, but legally it’s registered voters.) ✔

Statement 2: Panchayat elections are conducted by the STATE Election Commission, not the Election Commission of India (which handles Lok Sabha/Vidhan Sabha). ✘

Statement 3: Article 243E – if a Panchayat is dissolved and reconstituted, it works only for the remainder of the 5-year term. ✔

Statement 4: Article 243H – State Legislature may authorise Panchayats to levy and collect taxes/duties. ✔

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

Q41. Consider the following pairs:1. Tribes Advisory Council : IV Schedule2. Autonomous Districts : VI Schedule3. Regional Councils : V ScheduleHow many pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(D) None of the pairs

✔ ANSWER: (A) Only one pair

Explanation:

IV Schedule: Deals with allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha. (NOT Tribes Advisory Council.) ✘

Tribes Advisory Councils are established under the FIFTH SCHEDULE (for Scheduled Areas in mainland India).

Autonomous Districts: Established under the SIXTH SCHEDULE for tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. ✔

Regional Councils: Also established under the SIXTH SCHEDULE (alongside District Councils) – NOT Fifth Schedule. ✘

Only pair 2 (Autonomous Districts = VI Schedule) is correctly matched.

Q42. Consider the following pairs about insect life cycles:1. Mosquito : Egg, Larva, Pupa & Adult2. Silk moth : Egg, Larva, Pupa and Adult3. Cockroaches : Egg, Nymph, Pupa and AdultHow many pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(D) None of the pairs

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two pairs

Explanation:

Mosquito: Holometabolous (complete metamorphosis) – Egg → Larva → Pupa → Adult. ✔

Silk moth (Bombyx mori): Holometabolous – Egg → Larva (silkworm) → Pupa (cocoon) → Adult. ✔

Cockroach: Hemimetabolous (incomplete metamorphosis) – Egg → Nymph → Adult. There is NO Pupa stage in cockroaches. ✘

Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Q43. Statement I: Rabi crops include paddy, soyabean, pigeon pea, maize and cotton while crops like wheat, gram, peas are Kharif crops.Statement II: Vegetables and fruits provide vitamins and minerals in addition to small amounts of proteins and fats.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✔ ANSWER: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation:

Statement I is COMPLETELY REVERSED: Paddy, soyabean, pigeon pea, maize, cotton are KHARIF crops (sown June–July, harvested Oct–Nov). Wheat, gram, peas, mustard are RABI crops (sown Oct–Nov, harvested March–April). ✘

Statement II: Fruits and vegetables are primarily sources of vitamins, minerals and dietary fiber, with small amounts of proteins and fats. ✔

Q44. Which of the following is/are correct?1. Fertilizers are commercially available products that provide nitrogen, phosphorous and potassium to crops.2. Fertilizer contains a large amount of organic matter which improves the water holding capacity of the soil.

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

✔ ANSWER: (A) 1 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: Chemical/synthetic fertilizers provide macronutrients – N (nitrogen), P (phosphorous), K (potassium) – the NPK fertilizers. ✔

Statement 2: Synthetic fertilizers do NOT contain organic matter. It is MANURE and COMPOST that contain organic matter and improve water-holding capacity of soil. Fertilizers may actually degrade soil health with overuse. ✘

Only statement 1 is correct.

Q45. Consider the following pairs about contraceptive methods:1. Natural contraceptive : Lactational Amenorrhea2. Barrier method : Progestasert3. Hormone Releasing IUDs : SaheliHow many pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(D) None of the pairs

✔ ANSWER: (A) Only one pair

Explanation:

Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM): A natural contraceptive method based on breastfeeding-induced hormone suppression. ✔

Progestasert: An INTRAUTERINE DEVICE (IUD) that releases progesterone – not a barrier method. Barrier methods include condoms, diaphragms, cervical caps. ✘

Saheli (Centchroman/Ormeloxifene): A non-steroidal, non-hormonal weekly ORAL pill developed by CDRI, Lucknow. It is NOT a hormone-releasing IUD. LNG-IUS (Mirena) is a hormone-releasing IUD. ✘

Only pair 1 is correctly matched.

Q46. Statement I: ISRO launched the XPoSat mission in January 2025 to study cosmic X-ray sources.Statement II: XPoSat is India’s first dedicated mission to study X-ray polarization.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✔ ANSWER: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation:

Statement I: XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite) was launched on January 1, 2024 – NOT January 2025. ✘

Statement II: XPoSat is indeed India’s first dedicated space mission to study X-ray polarization of cosmic sources. It carries two payloads: POLIX and XSPECT. ✔

Q47. Statement I: Sangken is a Buddhist festival in Arunachal Pradesh that marks the community’s New Year.Statement II: Mopin is an agricultural festival associated with the Garo tribe and aims to drive away evil spirits and ensure prosperity.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✔ ANSWER: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation:

Statement I: Sangken (also called Songkran) is a water festival celebrated by Theravada Buddhist communities (Khamti, Singpho) of Arunachal Pradesh, marking the New Year. ✔

Statement II: Mopin is indeed an agricultural festival aimed at driving away evil spirits and ensuring prosperity – BUT it is the festival of the GALO (Adi) tribe of Arunachal Pradesh, NOT the Garo tribe. Garo tribe is from Meghalaya and celebrates Wangala. ✘

Q48. Consider the following statements about theories of culture:1. The Idealistic Theory believes that culture originates from divine inspiration, intuition, or higher ideas perceived by individuals or groups.2. The Materialistic Theory states that physical environment, climate and means of production shape culture first.3. Vedic Culture developed only from religious beliefs and was not influenced by material conditions.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: Idealistic Theory (Platonic/Hegelian tradition) holds that ideas, spirit, and divine inspiration are the primary shapers of culture. ✔

Statement 2: Materialistic Theory (Marxist tradition) argues that material conditions – climate, geography, economy, means of production – determine culture (‘base’ determines ‘superstructure’). ✔

Statement 3: Vedic Culture was influenced by BOTH religious beliefs AND material conditions (geography of Indus-Gangetic plains, cattle-based economy, etc.). Saying it was ONLY from religious beliefs is incorrect. ✘

Q49. Consider the following statements about Dravidian civilization:1. Archaeological evidence such as burial urns and earthen pots in South India indicates cultural exchange between Indus Valley Civilization and the early Tamil culture.2. The presence of Dravidian words in the Brahui language of Baluchistan suggests prehistoric cultural contact between North-West India and South India.3. The treatise Tolkappiam, written around 1000 BC, deals exclusively with Tamil grammar and provides no information about the social life of ancient Dravidians.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (A) Only one

Explanation:

Statement 1: The cultural exchange between IVC and early Tamil culture based on burial urns is contested – the connection is suggestive but not conclusively proven. ✘

Statement 2: Brahui is a Dravidian language spoken in Baluchistan (Pakistan/Afghanistan), indicating an ancient Dravidian-speaking population in NW India. This supports the theory of prehistoric cultural contact. ✔

Statement 3: Tolkappiam (dated approximately 3rd–5th century BCE, not 1000 BC) covers not only grammar but also poetics (akam and puram poetry traditions) that reflect social life. It is NOT exclusively about grammar. ✘

Only statement 2 is correct.

Q50. Consider the following statements about Haryana agricultural policies:1. In Haryana, State Govt. provides interest subvention.2. The e-billing for all types of bills was introduced in 2018 in Haryana.3. For Haryana, the effective rate of interest on crop loan is zero percent.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (C) All three

Explanation:

Statement 1: Haryana government provides interest subvention on crop loans to farmers. ✔

Statement 2: E-billing was introduced in Haryana in 2018 for transparency in billing systems. ✔

Statement 3: With interest subvention from both Centre and State, the effective rate on crop loans in Haryana becomes 0%. ✔

All three statements are correct.

Q51. Consider the following statements about Haryana economy:1. Haryana initiated gender budgeting in 2008-09 financial year.2. Old Age Samman Allowance Scheme is run by Haryana with 100% support from central government.3. Haryana’s per capita income is higher than national average for 2025-26.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: Haryana introduced gender-responsive budgeting in 2008-09. ✔

Statement 2: Old Age Samman Allowance in Haryana is primarily a STATE scheme – NOT 100% centrally funded. The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) provides some central funds, but the Haryana scheme has significant state contribution. ✘

Statement 3: Haryana is one of the most developed states in India – its per capita income is consistently higher than the national average. ✔

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Q52. Statement I: The Excise & Taxation Department Haryana administers VAT on sale of goods except 4 non-GST goods.Statement II: The excise collection on liqueur is one of the major sources of revenue for the state government in Haryana.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✔ ANSWER: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation:

Statement I: After GST implementation, VAT is still levied on items outside GST – mainly petroleum products (petrol, diesel, ATF, natural gas) and alcohol. The Excise & Taxation Dept administers VAT on these residual goods. ✔

Statement II: While excise on liquor IS a significant revenue source for Haryana, calling it ‘one of the major sources’ is broadly correct. However, the statement’s accuracy depends on ranking – Stamps and Registration, State GST, and excise on liquor all compete for top positions. The answer key here indicates this statement is false. ✘

Q53. Consider the following pairs about Straits:1. Hormuz Strait : Red Sea and Gulf of Aden2. Davis Strait : Baffin Bay and Labrador Sea3. Bosporus Strait : Black Sea and Sea of MarmaraHow many pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(D) None of the pairs

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two pairs

Explanation:

Strait of Hormuz: Connects the PERSIAN GULF with the Gulf of OMAN (not Red Sea/Gulf of Aden). The Bab-el-Mandeb connects Red Sea and Gulf of Aden. ✘

Davis Strait: Separates Greenland from Baffin Island, connecting Baffin Bay to the Labrador Sea. ✔

Bosphorus Strait: Connects the Black Sea to the Sea of Marmara (and then Dardanelles leads to Aegean Sea). ✔

Pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

Q54. Consider the following statements about Kuroshio:1. Kuroshio is a cold ocean current in the Pacific ocean.2. Kuroshio ocean current flows from tropics to south pole.3. Kuroshio is an ocean current in western part of the North Pacific ocean.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (A) Only one

Explanation:

Statement 1: Kuroshio is a WARM ocean current (Japan Current) – NOT cold. ✘

Statement 2: Kuroshio flows NORTHWARD (poleward) along the eastern coast of Japan – from tropics towards north Pacific. It does NOT flow to south pole. ✘

Statement 3: Kuroshio is indeed the WESTERN boundary current of the North Pacific subtropical gyre, flowing northward along Japan’s Pacific coast. ✔

Only statement 3 is correct.

Q55. Consider the following information about rivers:1. Brahmagiri Hills – Kaveri – Karnataka2. A spring at Verinag – Chenab – Jammu and Kashmir3. Amarkantak Plateau – Godavari – Madhya PradeshIn how many rows is information correctly matched?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (A) Only one

Explanation:

Kaveri: Originates from Talakaveri on Brahmagiri hills in Kodagu (Coorg) district, Karnataka. ✔

Verinag: A spring in J&K – it is the source of the JHELUM (Vyeth) river, NOT Chenab. Chenab originates from Baralacha Pass. ✘

Amarkantak Plateau: Is the source of NARMADA and SON rivers (in Madhya Pradesh), NOT Godavari. Godavari originates near Trimbakeshwar/Nashik in Maharashtra. ✘

Only pair 1 is correctly matched.

Q56. Statement I: Akbar and his elite first saw tobacco in 1604 AD.Statement II: Abul Fazl in his Ain-i-Akbari described the cultivation and use of tobacco in North India in detail.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✔ ANSWER: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Explanation:

Statement I: Tobacco was introduced to India by the Portuguese around 1605 (when Akbar died). Akbar himself died in October 1605. The claim that ‘Akbar and his elite first saw tobacco in 1604’ – Akbar was reportedly against intoxicants. This claim is disputed. ✘

Statement II: The Ain-i-Akbari (written ~1590s) does NOT describe tobacco cultivation in detail – tobacco was still being introduced to India at that time and was not yet widespread. ✘

Q57. Statement I: During British colonialism, the Santhals were settled at the foothills of the Rajmahal and this large area was considered their land (Damin-i-Koh) and was made to cultivate.Statement II: Landlords, moneylenders, and the colonial government would reclaim the cleared land of the Santhals by imposing heavy taxes and high interest rates. This led to the Santhal rebellion.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✔ ANSWER: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Explanation:

Statement I: British authorities settled Santhals in the Rajmahal hills region (Jharkhand). The area was called ‘Damin-i-Koh’ (skirts of the hills) where they cleared forests and cultivated land. ✔

Statement II: After Santhals cleared and developed the land, outsiders (dikus) – moneylenders (mahajans), merchants, and zamindars – exploited them through debt bondage and high taxes. This exploitation triggered the Santhal Hul (Rebellion) of 1855-56. ✔

Q58. Statement I: Before the railway age, the town of Mirzapur was a collection center for cotton coming from the Deccan.Statement II: Cotton production in Bombay almost came to an end due to the American Civil War.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✔ ANSWER: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation:

Statement I: Pre-railway, Mirzapur (on Ganga) was an important commercial hub and collection center for cotton from the Deccan. ✔

Statement II: The American Civil War (1861–65) caused a BOOM (not collapse) in Indian cotton production. With American cotton supply cut off, demand for Indian cotton SKYROCKETED, leading to the famous ‘Cotton Boom’ and transformation of Bombay into a major textile center. ✘

Q59. Statement I: The British land revenue system, known as the Summary Settlement, was implemented in Awadh in 1856.Statement II: The Summary Settlement increased the income of the middleman taluqdars by granting him new land.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✔ ANSWER: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation:

Statement I: When Awadh was annexed in 1856, the British conducted a hasty Summary Settlement of land revenue. ✔

Statement II: The Summary Settlement actually HURT the taluqdars – it stripped them of their powers, recognized cultivators/peasants directly, and REDUCED taluqdari authority and income. It did NOT increase their income. ✘

Q60. Consider the following statements about the Inter-State Council:1. The Inter-State Council can inquire into disputes between the states.2. It can discuss subjects in which states, or the Union and one or more states, have a common interest.3. Union territories are not represented in the Inter-State Council.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two

Explanation:

Inter-State Council is established under Article 263 of the Constitution.

Statement 1: It can inquire into and advise upon interstate disputes. ✔

Statement 2: It can discuss and recommend policy on subjects of common Union-State interest. ✔

Statement 3: Union Territories CAN be represented – Lt. Governors of UTs with legislatures (Delhi, Puducherry) have been included. ✘

Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Q61. Consider the following statements about Newton’s Laws:1. An object moving with constant velocity has zero net force acting on it.2. Action and reaction forces act on the same body.3. A large force acting for a short time can produce a large change in momentum.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: Newton’s First Law – if velocity is constant, acceleration = 0, so net force = 0. ✔

Statement 2: Newton’s Third Law – action and reaction forces act on DIFFERENT bodies (not the same body). ✘

Statement 3: Impulse-Momentum Theorem: J = F×t = Δp. Even a short time can yield large Δp if F is very large (e.g., bat hitting a ball). ✔

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Q62. Consider the following pairs about the human eye:1. If ciliary muscles are relaxed : focal length of the eye lens increases2. If eye lens becomes thicker : enables us to see nearby objects clearly3. For a young adult with normal vision : near point is about 25 cmHow many pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(D) None of the pairs

✔ ANSWER: (C) All three pairs

Explanation:

Pair 1: Relaxed ciliary muscles → suspensory ligaments taut → lens becomes flat/thin → focal length INCREASES → can focus on distant objects. ✔

Pair 2: Thicker lens → shorter focal length → can focus on near objects (accommodation). ✔

Pair 3: For a normal young adult, the least distance of distinct vision (near point) = 25 cm. ✔

All three pairs are correctly matched.

Q63. Consider the following statements about sound:1. The loudness of a sound is determined basically by its frequency.2. The frequency of the sound wave does not change when it travels from one medium to another.3. Audible range of the average human ear extends from about 20 Hz to 20 kHz.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: Loudness is determined by AMPLITUDE (intensity) of sound waves, not frequency. Frequency determines PITCH. ✘

Statement 2: When sound travels between media, its speed and wavelength change, but FREQUENCY remains constant. ✔

Statement 3: Human audible range = 20 Hz (infrasound boundary) to 20,000 Hz (ultrasound boundary). ✔

Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Q64. Consider the following information:1. UNFCCC : Framework for climate negotiations2. Kyoto Protocol : Legally binding emission reduction targets for all countries3. Global Compact for Migration : Legally binding agreementIn how many rows is information correctly matched?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (A) Only one

Explanation:

UNFCCC: The UN Framework Convention on Climate Change – provides the framework for all international climate negotiations. ✔

Kyoto Protocol: Had legally binding emission reduction targets ONLY for developed countries (Annex I parties), NOT all countries. Developing countries (including India, China) had no binding targets. ✘

Global Compact for Migration (2018): A NON-BINDING voluntary framework adopted by UN General Assembly – NOT a legally binding treaty. ✘

Only pair 1 is correctly matched.

Q65. Consider the following information:1. BharatNet Project : Aims to provide broadband connectivity in rural India2. National Electric Mobility Mission : Supports EV adoption and infrastructure3. PM Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana : Provides clean cooking gas to householdsIn how many rows is information correctly matched?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two

Explanation:

BharatNet: An ambitious project to provide optical fiber broadband connectivity to all Gram Panchayats in India. ✔

National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP): Aims to promote EVs through financial incentives and infrastructure (FAME scheme). ✔

PM Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana (Saubhagya): Provides ELECTRICITY connections to every household – NOT cooking gas. PM Ujjwala Yojana provides clean cooking gas (LPG). ✘

Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Q66. Consider the following information:1. UNTOC : Also known as Palermo Convention2. UNCAC : Only legally binding universal anti-corruption instrument3. UN Spotlight Initiative : Implemented solely by IMFIn how many rows is information correctly matched?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two

Explanation:

UNTOC (UN Convention against Transnational Organized Crime): Also called Palermo Convention (signed in Palermo, Sicily, 2000). ✔

UNCAC (UN Convention against Corruption): The only legally binding universal instrument against corruption (adopted 2003). ✔

UN Spotlight Initiative: A joint initiative of the EUROPEAN UNION and UNITED NATIONS to end violence against women – NOT implemented solely by IMF. ✘

Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Q67. Which of the following is/are correct?1. The Global Carbon Budget 2024 is released by the IPCC.2. It tracks global CO₂ emissions and sinks.

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

✔ ANSWER: (B) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: The Global Carbon Budget is published annually by the GLOBAL CARBON PROJECT (GCP), not the IPCC. The IPCC publishes Assessment Reports. ✘

Statement 2: The Global Carbon Budget comprehensively tracks global CO₂ emissions (from fossil fuels, land use) and carbon sinks (oceans, land ecosystems). ✔

Q68. Which of the following is/are correct?1. India deployed the first All-women Formed Police Unit in Liberia.2. UN Peacekeeping operations are mandated by the UN General Assembly only.

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

✔ ANSWER: (A) 1 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: In 2007, India deployed the first-ever all-female Formed Police Unit (FPU) to UNMIL (UN Mission in Liberia). This was a historic milestone. ✔

Statement 2: UN Peacekeeping operations are primarily mandated by the UN SECURITY COUNCIL (Chapter VI and VII of UN Charter). The General Assembly can also authorize missions (e.g., under ‘Uniting for Peace’ resolution) but the Security Council is the primary body. ‘Only GA’ is incorrect. ✘

Q69. Statement I: Per-capita income is not sufficient to measure the development.Statement II: Per-capita income is defined as total population divided by total income.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✔ ANSWER: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation:

Statement I: Per-capita income doesn’t capture income distribution (inequality), quality of life, environmental sustainability, education, health outcomes etc. Hence it is insufficient as a sole measure of development. ✔

Statement II: Per-capita income = TOTAL INCOME / TOTAL POPULATION (not the other way around as stated). The statement reverses the formula. ✘

Q70. Statement I: Disguised Unemployment is a structural phenomenon in Indian Agriculture.Statement II: Marginal Productivity of additional labour Units is zero (MPL = 0) in Indian Agriculture due to disguised unemployment.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✔ ANSWER: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Explanation:

Statement I: Disguised unemployment is a structural feature of Indian agriculture – where more people work on land than is productively required. ✔

Statement II: Disguised unemployment is technically defined as a situation where MPL = 0, meaning removing some workers would NOT reduce total output. This defines the condition of disguised unemployment. ✔

Q71. Which of the following is/are correct?1. Collateral requirements expand the credit access for landless labourers.2. Multinational Corporation may influence the domestic production patterns.

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

✔ ANSWER: (B) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: Collateral requirements actually RESTRICT (not expand) credit access for landless labourers who lack assets to pledge as security. This is why landless labourers are financially excluded and depend on informal moneylenders. ✘

Statement 2: MNCs influence domestic production by introducing new technologies, shifting demand, setting quality standards, and competing with or complementing domestic industries. ✔

Q72. Which of the following is/are correct?1. GDP is calculated by adding up the value of all final goods and services produced in a country during a given year.2. Intermediate consumption represents the value of goods and services as inputs in the production process, excluding fixed assets.

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

✔ ANSWER: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1: GDP (expenditure approach) = sum of market value of ALL FINAL goods and services produced within a country in a year. Only final goods counted (to avoid double counting). ✔

Statement 2: Intermediate consumption = value of goods and services consumed as inputs by enterprises in the production of other goods/services, excluding consumption of fixed capital (depreciation). This is the standard national accounting definition. ✔

Q73. Consider the following statements about credit:1. Formal credit sources are regulated by government sources.2. Expansion of institutional credit reduces dependence on money lenders.3. Informal lenders generally charge lower rate of interest due to competition among themselves.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: Formal credit institutions (banks, cooperatives) are regulated by the RBI and government authorities. ✔

Statement 2: Expansion of formal institutional credit reduces farmers’/poor people’s dependence on exploitative informal moneylenders. ✔

Statement 3: Informal lenders charge HIGHER interest rates (often exploitative – 30–100%+) because they operate outside regulation. They do NOT compete on low rates. ✘

Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Q74. Consider the following pairs:1. Commercial banks : Provide regulated loans2. Self Help Groups : Provide Group credit3. Informal Money lenders : Provide loans as per RBI rulesHow many pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(D) None of the pairs

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two pairs

Explanation:

Commercial banks: Provide loans regulated by RBI guidelines and prudential norms. ✔

Self Help Groups (SHGs): Pool savings of members and provide group-based microcredit (bank linkage programme). ✔

Informal moneylenders: Operate OUTSIDE RBI regulations. They are not bound by any RBI rules – hence unregulated with no interest rate caps. ✘

Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Q75. Consider the following statements about land use terms:1. Current fallow land – left without cultivation for two or more agricultural years.2. Other than current fallow land – left uncultivated for past 1 to 5 agricultural years.3. Gross cropped area – Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area is known as gross cropped area.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1: Current fallow = land left without cultivation for the CURRENT year only (not 2+ years). Land not cultivated for 1-5 years = ‘Other than current fallow’. ✘

Statement 2: ‘Other than current fallow’ = land left uncultivated for 1 to 5 years (while ‘cultural waste’ is uncultivated for 5+ years). ✔

Statement 3: Gross Cropped Area = Total area sown considering every sowing separately. It equals net sown area + area sown more than once. ✔

Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Q76. Consider the following pairs about National Waterways of India:1. NW1 : Kottapuram-Kollam stretch2. NW2 : Allahabad-Haldia stretch3. NW3 : Sadia-Dhubri stretchHow many pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(D) None of the pairs

✔ ANSWER: (D) None of the pairs

Explanation:

Correct National Waterways mapping:

NW-1: Allahabad (Prayagraj) to Haldia on Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly (1620 km)

NW-2: Sadiya to Dhubri on River Brahmaputra (891 km)

NW-3: Kottapuram to Kollam (West Coast Canal, Kerala, 205 km)

All three pairs given in the question are incorrectly matched – each stretch is assigned to the wrong waterway number. None is correct.

Q77. Statement I: Long staple (American) cotton in north-western parts of India is called ‘narma’.Statement II: Tur, an important pulse, is also known as yellow gram.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✔ ANSWER: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation:

Statement I: Narma (also called American/Desi hybrid cotton) is the long-staple cotton variety grown in Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan. ✔

Statement II: Tur (Arhar/Pigeon Pea) is called RED gram – NOT yellow gram. Yellow gram (Moong) = Green gram (Vigna radiata). Black gram = Urad. ✘

Q78. Arrange the following historical events concerning Haryana region in correct chronological order (earliest to latest):I. The Treaty of Surji-Anjangaon transferring control of Haryana to the British East India Company.II. The establishment of George Thomas’s independent kingdom at Hansi.III. The annexation of the Kaithal state by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse.IV. The Battle of Karnal between Nader Shah and Muhammad Shah.

(A) IV, II, I, III

(B) IV, I, II, III

(D) I, IV, II, III

✔ ANSWER: (A) IV, II, I, III

Explanation:

IV. Battle of Karnal (1739): Nader Shah of Persia defeated Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah.

II. George Thomas’s kingdom at Hansi (~1797–1801): An Irish adventurer established a principality in Haryana.

I. Treaty of Surji-Anjangaon (1803): After Second Anglo-Maratha War, Scindias ceded Haryana region to British East India Company.

III. Annexation of Kaithal (1843): Under Doctrine of Lapse, Kaithal was annexed when the ruler died without an heir.

Correct chronological order: IV → II → I → III

Q79. In the context of the ‘Parivar Pehchan Patra’ (PPP) scheme of Haryana, which statements are correct?1. It mandates the creation of an 8-digit unique alphanumeric ID for every family residing in Haryana.2. The data obtained through PPP is legally protected under the Haryana Parivar Pehchan Act, 2021, which designates the Haryana Trust Based Reading Authority as the data custodian.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

✔ ANSWER: (A) Only 1

Explanation:

Statement 1: PPP assigns a unique 8-digit family ID to every family in Haryana to consolidate their data and streamline government benefits. ✔

Statement 2: The Haryana Parivar Pehchan Act, 2021 protects the PPP data. However, the designated authority name ‘Haryana Trust Based Reading Authority’ appears to be inaccurate – the correct custodian body has a different official designation. ✘

Only statement 1 is correct.

Q80. How many of the following GI (Geographical Indication) tags are officially associated exclusively or jointly with the state of Haryana?1. Phulkari2. Basmati Rice3. Sirsa Kinnow4. Rohtak Rewri

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) All four

✔ ANSWER: (B) Only two

Explanation:

Phulkari: GI tag is associated with Punjab primarily (and partly Haryana). It is not exclusively Haryana’s. ✘

Basmati Rice: GI tag covers multiple states (Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, J&K, Uttarakhand, UP, Delhi). Haryana is a co-holder. ✔

Sirsa Kinnow: Kinnow production from Sirsa, Haryana has GI tag recognition. ✔

Rohtak Rewri: While Rewri (sesame brittle) is a local specialty, its official GI status needs verification. ✘

Approximately two are well-established (Basmati Rice and Sirsa Kinnow).

Q81. Match List I (Major Power/Industrial Projects) with List II (Location/District) in Haryana:I. Gorakhpur Nuclear Power PlantII. Rajiv Gandhi Thermal Power ProjectIII. Mahatma Gandhi Super Thermal Power ProjectIV. Deen Bandhu Chhotu Ram Thermal Power Planta. Jhajjar b. Hisar c. Fatehabad d. Yamunanagar

(A) I-c, II-b, III-a, IV-d

(B) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a

(D) I-d, II-b, III-a, IV-c

✔ ANSWER: (A) I-c, II-b, III-a, IV-d

Explanation:

Gorakhpur Haryana Anu Vidyut Pariyojana (Nuclear): Located in Fatehabad district. → I-c ✔

Rajiv Gandhi Thermal Power Project: Located in Khedar, Hisar district. → II-b ✔

Mahatma Gandhi Super Thermal Power Project: Located in Jhajjar district. → III-a ✔

Deen Bandhu Chhotu Ram Thermal Power Plant: Located in Yamuna Nagar (on Yamuna river). → IV-d ✔

Q82. Arrange the following traditional folk fairs of Haryana in the chronological order of the Hindu calendar months they are typically celebrated in (from Chaitra onwards):1. Masani Mela (Gurugram)2. Kapal Mochan Mela (Yamunanagar)3. Gugga Naumi Mela4. Phalgu Mela (Faral)

(A) I, III, IV, II

(B) I, IV, III, II

(D) IV, I, III, II

✔ ANSWER: (B) I, IV, III, II

Explanation:

Masani Mela: Celebrated in Chaitra month (March-April) in Gurugram. → 1st

Phalgu Mela (Faral): Celebrated in Baisakh/Vaishakh (April-May). → 2nd

Gugga Naumi: Celebrated on Navami of Bhadrapada (August-September). → 3rd

Kapal Mochan Mela: Celebrated in Kartik (October-November) at Bilaspur, Yamunanagar. → 4th

Correct order from Chaitra: I (Chaitra) → IV (Baisakh) → III (Bhadrapada) → II (Kartik)

Q83. Statement I: Denatured alcohol contains small quantity of methanol, a poisonous substance.Statement II: Methanol is poisonous because it gets oxidized to methanoic acid in liver, which coagulates the protoplasm.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✔ ANSWER: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Explanation:

Statement I: Denatured alcohol (methylated spirit) is ethanol mixed with methanol and other additives to make it unfit for consumption. ✔

Statement II: Methanol is metabolized in the liver to formaldehyde and then formic acid (methanoic acid), which is toxic. It coagulates proteins/protoplasm, particularly damaging the optic nerve (causing blindness) and other tissues. ✔

Q84. Consider the following information about colloids:Column-A | Column-B | Column-C1. Smoke – Colloid – Gas in solid2. Milk – Emulsion – Homogeneous3. Pumice stone – Foam – HeterogeneousIn how many rows is information correctly matched?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (A) Only one

Explanation:

Smoke: Solid particles dispersed in Gas (aerosol) – this is ‘solid in gas’, NOT ‘gas in solid’. Foam = gas in liquid/solid. ✘

Milk: An emulsion (liquid in liquid – fat droplets in water), which is HETEROGENEOUS, not homogeneous. ✘

Pumice stone: A solid foam – contains bubbles of gas trapped in solidified lava (solid). Type = Foam. It is Heterogeneous. ✔

Only pair 3 is correctly matched.

Q85. Statement I: All metals evolve hydrogen gas upon reaction with hydrochloric acid.Statement II: Hydrogen carbonates of all metals except sodium react with acids to give a corresponding salt, carbon dioxide and water.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✔ ANSWER: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Explanation:

Statement I: NOT all metals react with HCl to produce H₂. Noble metals like Gold (Au), Platinum (Pt), Silver (Ag) and Copper (Cu) do NOT react with dilute HCl. ✘

Statement II: Sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO₃) DOES react with acids: NaHCO₃ + HCl → NaCl + H₂O + CO₂. The statement incorrectly excludes sodium. Also, hydrogen carbonates of ALL metals (including sodium) react with acids to produce CO₂. ✘

Both statements are false.

Q86. Consider the following statements about dental caries:1. Dental caries begins when bacteria acting on sugars produce alcohol that softens/demineralises the enamel.2. Dental caries begins when bacteria produce acetone that softens/demineralises the enamel.3. Dental caries begins when bacteria acting on sugars produce acids that soften/demineralise the enamel.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (A) Only one

Explanation:

Statement 1: Alcohol is NOT the cause of tooth decay. ✘

Statement 2: Acetone is NOT produced by cariogenic bacteria and does not cause dental caries. ✘

Statement 3: CORRECT – bacteria like Streptococcus mutans ferment dietary sugars to produce LACTIC ACID (and other organic acids), which dissolves the calcium phosphate in tooth enamel (demineralization). ✔

Only statement 3 is correct.

Q87. Consider the following pairs of current sectoral composition of Indian Economy (Economic Survey 2025-26):1. Primary Sector : Largest share in employment with lowest share in GDP2. Secondary Sector : Lowest share in employment with second largest contribution in GDP3. Tertiary Sector : Largest contribution in GDPHow many pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(D) None of the pairs

✔ ANSWER: (C) All three pairs

Explanation:

Primary Sector (Agriculture): Employs ~45-47% of workforce (largest) but contributes only ~17-18% to GDP (lowest among the three). ✔

Secondary Sector (Industry): Employs ~25% of workforce (lowest among three) and contributes ~28% to GDP (second largest). ✔

Tertiary Sector (Services): Contributes ~54-55% to GDP (largest share). ✔

All three pairs accurately reflect the structural composition of the Indian economy.

Q88. Consider the following pairs about certification marks:1. HallMark : LPG cylinder and electronic goods2. ISI Mark : Jewellery3. Agmark : Food items like edible oil and honeyIn how many rows is information correctly matched?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (A) Only one

Explanation:

HallMark: BIS Hallmark is for GOLD/SILVER JEWELLERY – certifying its purity/fineness. NOT for LPG or electronics. ✘

ISI Mark: Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) ISI mark is for industrial/consumer products (cement, steel, electrical appliances, LPG cylinders) – NOT for jewellery. ✘

Agmark: Agricultural Mark – certified by DMAPC (Ministry of Agriculture) for agricultural commodities including edible oils, honey, ghee, spices, etc. ✔

Only pair 3 is correctly matched.

Q89. Consider the following information about districts and economic features:1. Panipat – Centre of Textile Industry – Hub of handloom Industry2. Gurugram – Information technology – Corporate Services3. Bhiwani – Agricultural Machinery – ManufacturingIn how many rows is information correctly matched?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (C) All three

Explanation:

Panipat: Known as the ‘City of Weavers’ and ‘Cast-offs Capital’ – major center of textile (blanket, carpet recycling) and handloom industry. ✔

Gurugram (Gurgaon): India’s major IT hub and home to MNC corporate headquarters and shared services. ✔

Bhiwani: Known for cotton textile, sports goods manufacturing, and also agricultural machinery production in Haryana. ✔

Q90. Which of the following is/are correct about Haryana’s industrial base?1. Industrial base of Haryana mainly consists of Cotton textiles, Sugar processing and Farm machinery production.2. The state also manufactures chemicals as a variety of consumer goods.

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

✔ ANSWER: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1: Haryana’s key industries include cotton textiles (Panipat, Hisar, Bhiwani), sugar processing (Yamunanagar, Rohtak area), and farm/agricultural machinery. ✔

Statement 2: Haryana also produces chemicals, pharmaceuticals, automobiles, electronics, and various consumer goods. ✔

Both statements are correct.

Q91. Which of the following is/are correct about Haryana Budget 2026-27?1. The estimated fiscal deficit for Haryana as per Budget 2026-27 is 2.6%.2. In Haryana, effective revenue deficit has increased in past three years as the grants for creation of capital assets have gone down.

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

✔ ANSWER: (A) 1 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: Haryana Budget 2026-27 estimates fiscal deficit at 2.6% of GSDP (within FRBM limits). ✔

Statement 2: Effective revenue deficit = Revenue Deficit minus Grants for Creation of Capital Assets. If grants increased (not decreased), effective revenue deficit would be lower. The statement about grants going DOWN is not accurate for recent years. ✘

Q92. Which of the following is/are correct about Haryana revenue?1. According to Budget 2026-27 for Haryana, maximum tax revenue comes from State Goods & Service Tax, followed by stamps and registration.2. Haryana government’s own tax revenue is estimated to increase by 11% in Budget 2026-27 over Revised Budget 2025-26.

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

✔ ANSWER: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1: In Haryana’s budget, State GST contributes the largest share of tax revenue, followed by stamps and registration fees. ✔

Statement 2: Haryana’s own tax revenue is budgeted to grow by approximately 11% in 2026-27 over the revised estimates of 2025-26. ✔

Both statements are correct.

Q93. Match List I (Freedom Fighters/Reformers of Haryana) with List II (Associated Journals/Contributions):I. Sir Chhotu Ram – a. ‘Sandesh’ (Weekly Newspaper)II. Pandit Neki Ram Sharma – b. ‘Jat Gazette’ (Urdu Weekly)III. Lala Murlidhar – c. ‘Haryana Tilak’ (Urdu/Hindi)IV. Sriram Sharma – d. Khair-Andesh (Newspaper)

(A) I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c

(B) I-b, II-c, III-a, IV-d

(D) I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b

✔ ANSWER: (A) I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c

Explanation:

Sir Chhotu Ram: Founded/associated with ‘Jat Gazette’ (also called Jat Samachar), an Urdu weekly supporting peasant rights. → I-b

Pandit Neki Ram Sharma: Founded ‘Sandesh’ newspaper. → II-a

Lala Murlidhar: Associated with ‘Khair-Andesh’ newspaper. → III-d

Sriram Sharma: Known for ‘Haryana Tilak’ – an important Hindi/Urdu newspaper. → IV-c

Q94. Assertion A: The Revolt of 1857 in the Haryana region lacked centralized leadership, leading to fragmented tribal and localized peasant uprisings rather than a unified military campaign.Reason R: The strategic assassination of Nawab Abdur Rahman Khan of Jhajjar before the outbreak of the mutiny decapitated the central command of the Haryana rebels.

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(D) A is false but R is true

✔ ANSWER: (C) A is true but R is false

Explanation:

Assertion A is TRUE: The 1857 revolt in Haryana was indeed fragmented – various uprisings in Ambala, Gurgaon, Hisar, Rohtak were largely localized with no unified command. ✔

Reason R is FALSE: Nawab Abdur Rahman Khan of Jhajjar was executed by the British AFTER the revolt (he was tried and hanged in 1857 for participating in the revolt) – not assassinated BEFORE the outbreak. The revolt didn’t lack central leadership because of his assassination before the revolt. ✘

Q95. How many of the following statements regarding the drainage system of Haryana are correct?1. The Markanda river, an ephemeral stream, changes its name to the Aruna river after entering the state.2. The Sahibi river originates in the Mewat hills and is a major tributary of the Yamuna, joining it near Okhla.3. The Tangri river is a tributary of the Markanda river and originates in the Morni hills.4. The Drishadvati river is generally identified with the modern-day Chautang river system.

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) All four

✔ ANSWER: (C) Only three

Explanation:

Statement 1: Markanda river changing name to ‘Aruna’ – this is not a well-established fact. Markanda river in Haryana does not popularly change its name to Aruna. ✘

Statement 2: Sahibi (Sabi) river originates in the Aravalli hills of Rajasthan/Mewat region and joins Yamuna near Okhla (Delhi). ✔

Statement 3: Tangri river originates in Morni hills (Panchkula) and is a tributary of Ghaggar/Markanda system. ✔

Statement 4: The ancient Drishadvati river is identified with the present Chautang river in Haryana (flows through Fatehabad and Sirsa). ✔

Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

Q96. Which of the following best describes the ‘Bagar’ tract of Haryana?

(A) The floodplains formed by the Yamuna river in the eastern districts

(B) The heavily eroded, gullied lands at the foothills of the Shiwaliks

(D) The highly fertile, low-lying loamy plains in the central districts like Rohtak and Sonipat

✔ ANSWER: (C) The dry, sandy upland region along the Rajasthan border featuring shifting sand dunes

Explanation:

Bagar (also Bangar upland): A dry, sandy upland region in the western and south-western parts of Haryana (Sirsa, Fatehabad, Hisar, Bhiwani, Mahendragarh districts) bordering Rajasthan.

Characterized by: sandy soil, arid/semi-arid conditions, shifting sand dunes (barkhans), low rainfall.

The other physiographic divisions of Haryana: Ghaggar plain (N), Yamuna plain (E), Aravalli hills (SW), Morni hills (NE), Nali (depressions of Sahibi basin).

Q97. Consider the following statements about joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament:1. If a Bill is passed by one House and rejected by the other House.2. If there is a disagreement among the Houses regarding the amendments to be made in a Bill.3. If more than three months lapse from the date of reception of a Bill by the other House without the Bill being passed by it.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

✔ ANSWER: (C) All three

Explanation:

Article 108 of the Constitution provides for joint sitting under three circumstances:

Statement 1: Bill passed by one House is rejected by the other. ✔

Statement 2: Disagreement on amendments. ✔

Statement 3: Three months lapse without action by the other House. ✔

All three are valid grounds for joint sitting under Article 108.

Q98. Consider the following pairs regarding landmark PIL cases in India:1. Hussainara Khatoon vs State of Bihar (1979) : Under-trial prisoners case2. Sunil Batra vs Delhi Administration (1980) : Case related to torture of prisoners3. M.C. Mehta vs Union of India (1991) : Environment protection caseHow many pairs are correct?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(D) None of the pairs

✔ ANSWER: (C) All three pairs

Explanation:

Hussainara Khatoon vs Bihar (1979): Landmark case on rights of under-trial prisoners languishing in jails without trial – established speedy trial as a fundamental right. ✔

Sunil Batra vs Delhi Administration (1980): SC directed humane treatment of prisoners, prohibited torture and solitary confinement without due process. ✔

M.C. Mehta vs Union of India: A series of environmental PILs by advocate M.C. Mehta. The 1991 case specifically addressed the Taj Trapezium and air pollution threatening the Taj Mahal. ✔

All three pairs are correctly matched.

Q99. Statement I: The term ‘judicial review’ is explicitly mentioned in the Constitution of India.Statement II: The Supreme Court can review laws on the ground that they violate the federal distribution of powers between the Centre and the States.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✔ ANSWER: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation:

Statement I: The term ‘judicial review’ is NOT explicitly mentioned anywhere in the Indian Constitution. It is an implied power derived from Articles 13, 32, 226, 246, and 251. The American Constitution similarly does not use this term. ✘

Statement II: The Supreme Court can review and strike down laws that violate the constitutional distribution of legislative powers (Union, State, and Concurrent Lists under 7th Schedule) between Centre and States. ✔

Q100. Consider the following statements about the Basic Structure doctrine:1. The doctrine of basic structure of the Constitution was propounded in the Keshavananda Bharti case.2. Right to Property is not a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.3. Only the Supreme Court and the High Courts have the right to decide whether any matter is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.4. The Parliament of India is not empowered to alter the basic structure of the Constitution.How many statements are correct?

(A) Only one statement

(B) Only two statements

(D) All four statements

✔ ANSWER: (D) All four statements

Explanation:

Statement 1: Keshavananda Bharti vs State of Kerala (1973) – landmark 13-judge bench case propounded the Basic Structure Doctrine. ✔

Statement 2: Right to Property was removed from Fundamental Rights by the 44th Constitutional Amendment (1978) and is now a mere legal right (Article 300A). It is NOT part of basic structure. ✔

Statement 3: Only constitutional courts (SC and HCs) can determine what constitutes the basic structure of the Constitution. ✔

Statement 4: Parliament’s amending power under Article 368 cannot alter or destroy the basic structure of the Constitution (Keshavananda Bharti judgment). ✔

All four statements are correct.

HPSC HCS Question Paper 2026 with Detailed Explanations – All 100 Questions Solved

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